Adjudicator Professional Certification Practice Test

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• What does SEAD stand for?
• The statement: In the PSP, we are only concerned with those weaknesses that could pose an Unacceptable Risk to National Security.
• In what year was the Freedom of Information Act enacted?
• Who has the final determination on 'due process' appeals?
• Which chapter of bankruptcy is the most common?
• What does SII stand for?
• Which case held that the investigative process is not equivalent to a trial and there is no self-incrimination protection?
• What does PPR stand for?
• Which chapter of bankruptcy is used by corporations?
• Which statement best describes the emergency appointment justification?
• What does FIPC stand for?
• What is the SF 312?
• SEAD 2 is associated with which assessment method?
• Which Executive Order established security policies designed to protect classified information?
• One effect of IRTPA is to streamline the investigative and adjudicative processes for the federal government.
• An adjudicator is the custodian of a PSI, not the owner.
• What does RADAR stand for?
• The National Security Act of 1947 established the military Departments under the direction, authority, and control of which officer?
• Which term describes the reciprocity guideline that ensures cooperation across agencies?
• The role of adjudicators and the decisions they make are vital to both national security and which of the following?
• Which tiered investigation supports Moderate Risk Public Trust Positions?
• Permanent residents may be given access to SCI in very special circumstances.
• When was the Bond Amendment signed into law and what did it amend?
• Define mitigating conditions.
• Which case is significant because for civilians, it limits the PSP to sensitive positions?
• Which acronym stands for 'Access National Agency Check with Written Inquiries and Credit Check'?
• Which regulation applies to industry and sets eligibility and safeguarding standards for classified information?
• How many domains are defined in Personnel Vetting?
• Which is not valid proof of U.S. citizenship?
• The Scattered Castles database is associated with which ICPG?
• Which term best describes an unauthorized attempt to access information?
• A command may request ___________ of an unfavorable determination 1 year after the date of the individual's denial/revocation.
• Which is not an example of a Special Access Program (SAP)?
• Which Executive Order focuses on reforming processes related to suitability for government employment, fitness for contractor employees, and eligibility for access to classified information?
• Who is the ANACI conducted on?
• Which of the following statements is true regarding reporting requirements for someone with Secret information?
• Which investigation type is used when adjudicator requires additional investigative information beyond the initial standards?
• Which term describes a person who is not a citizen of the United States but owes permanent allegiance to the United States?
• Define nolle prosequi.
• Which guideline addresses Outside Activities?
• What is the National Security Act of 1947?
• Which guidelines define the Health adjudicative issue?
• Which E.O. requires that the level of a covered individual's investigation be determined by the potential adverse effect the position could have on national security?
• Appeals will be reviewed by a high-level panel comprised of at least how many members, and how many must be outside the security field?
• Individuals denied eligibility for access should be provided any documents, records, and reports upon which the denial or revocation is based within ___ days upon request.
• Which case is most closely associated with due process procedures in the DOD PSP?
• What is ICPG 704.5?
• Which guideline addresses Psychological Conditions?
• As a national security adjudicator, you will protect our nation and its government by applying which trio to make unbiased trust determinations?
• What are the three types of vulnerabilities?
• What is ICD 704?
• Which of the following is NOT an example of a public record?
• The Position Designation System primarily determines which factor?
• Define the adjudicative process.
• An individual who was dismissed from the Armed Forces for unwillingness to comply with rules and regulations may be a concern under which guideline?
• Which agency verifies U.S. naturalization for foreign-born subjects?
• Which term best describes a non-citizen who owes permanent allegiance to the United States?
• What does CFR stand for?
• Transferring Responsibility for Background Investigations to the Department of Defense: Which is NOT a type of investigation?
• Which Executive Order has the effective date April 27, 1953?
• Any doubt shall be resolved in favor of ______.
• What does CVS stand for?
• Which executive order created new standards for identifying and protecting classified information?
• What warrants an Interpol Search?
• What is the whole-of-government approach to reform the personnel security process and to establish a single vetting system for the U.S. Government?
• Which bankruptcy chapter is used by people with regular income who want to pay debts?
• Which guideline addresses Drug Involvement and Substance Misuse?
• Which domain focuses on reliability and trustworthiness for government service?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five personnel vetting scenarios?
• What is the Position Designation System (PDS) used to do?
• An individual with access to Secret information is required to report receiving an inheritance of $10,000.
• A case involves concerns about personal conduct affecting impartiality; which guideline applies?
• Which term describes a briefing conducted when a subject's status changes or ends association?
• Can more than one disqualifying condition apply to a security concern?
• Which form is the Questionnaire for Public Trust Positions?
• What is the effective date associated with E.O. 10450?
• Which combination of acts is considered most significant to the history of the Personnel Security Program?
• The DoD PSP stands for what?
• In risk context, what best describes the relationship between a threat and a vulnerability?
• What does CATS stand for?
• Define concern in adjudicative guidelines.
• Which policy area is covered by E.O. 13764?
• Nolo contendere describes which?
• Which of the following best describes evaluating information for eligibility under the whole-person concept?
• What act represents the beginnings of the present-day PSP?
• Which statement best defines the adjudicative process?
• Which executive order established the National Industrial Security Program (NISP))?
• What can be expected when secret information is released?
• What is LAA?
• Which document governs access to SCI?
• What is the most common vulnerability that is exploited?
• What does USD(I&S) stand for?
• Which authority governs the collection of personal information by the Federal government?
• What does HSPD-12 stand for?
• What is the primary function of the Case Adjudication Tracking System (CATS)?
• Which of the following are components of the High Tier?
• Which guideline addresses Personal Conduct?
• Which case is associated with the right of the PSP to deny or revoke eligibility due to loyalty concerns?
• Use of Information Technology Systems is part of which adjudicative issue?
• Which two DOD-specific policies are relevant to our work as national security adjudicators?
• The National Security Act of 1947 established the following as part of its provisions?
• When evaluating foreclosure, do we look at past due amount or balance?
• SEAD 3 governs what area?
• Who is not authorized to make national security eligibility determinations based upon a review of the PSI or adverse information referral?
• Which items are components of the Moderate Tier?
• Which statement best describes the Character adjudicative issue?
• The adjudication facility is best described as which of the following?
• Define the whole-person concept.
• Which statement about 32 CFR Part 117 is true?
• Which of the following is a major element of the PSP?
• Within how many days of receiving an individual's response to a Statement of Reasons (SOR) should final clearance determinations be made?
• As basic criteria, which two qualifications are required to review the personal information in a PSI?
• What does PSI stand for?
• Which case ruled that falsification of information, regardless of intent, is grounds for denial of national security eligibility?
• Which case affirmed the right of the PSP to deny or revoke a national security eligibility because of questions about loyalty, trustworthiness, and reliability, with adjudicators not having to prove anything?
• Which term describes a background check that combines national agency checks with local agency checks and a credit check?
• Which tiered investigation uses SF-85?
• SEAD 9 provides protection for which group?
• Which kind of CVR will an adjudicator not attach to an SIR?
• Define drug abuse.
• Which guidelines define the Behavior adjudicative issue?
• Which type of threat is associated with individuals within an organization?
• Which Executive Order established the SecEA and designated the DNI as the SecEA?
• An individual with access to Secret information is required to report getting married.
• Which of the following acts is NOT listed among the most significant acts in PSP history?
• Which statement best describes 5 CFR Part 732?
• Which act is credited with curing the abuses of the Spoils System?
• What can be expected when SCI is released?
• What does ICPG stand for?
• Which statement about the Bond Amendment is true?
• Which executive order established the National Industrial Security Program?
• Which of the following is an area that is allowed to be questioned during background checks?
• What is the waiting period before requesting reconsideration after an unfavorable determination?
• A case concerns outside work that could raise conflicts of interest; which guideline applies?
• Which is not an indicator of espionage?
• Why was the Special Access Program (SAP) established?
• Which guideline addresses Sexual Behavior?
• The level of a covered individual's investigation is determined by the potential adverse effect the position could have on national security. This statement is:
• What are the penalties for unauthorized release or disclosure of protected information?
• What is the primary function of the NBIB?
• Under Continuous Evaluation, which of the following are responsibilities of the employing activity?
• An adjudicator receives a report that a government employee downloaded sexually explicit material on a government computer. The adjudicator applied Guideline J - Criminal Conduct. Is this appropriate?
• Which case is significant because an agency must follow its own regulations, even when those regulations are more restrictive than the law requires?
• The Freedom of Information Act gives the public the right to:
• Which SEAD category corresponds to Reciprocity?
• The beginning of the present-day PSP in the U.S. is based on what Congressional authority?
• Which ICPG covers Personnel Security Investigative Standards for Access to SCI?
• Which statement best aligns with the whole-person concept regarding information used in determinations?
• SEAD 4 refers to which guidelines?
• Which PSI does not support clearance eligibility for military?
• Nolle prosequi description.
• What is 32 CFR Part 117?
• NACLC stands for?
• Which form is the Questionnaire for Non-Sensitive Positions?
• Which guidelines define the Character adjudicative issue?
• Which credential is associated with HSPD-12 CAC Credentialing?
• If a subject is enrolled in CE, when would they need a new investigation?
• The policy area 'Safeguarding Classified Information within Industry' corresponds to which E.O.?
• Which Executive Order amended E.O. 10865?
• SEAD 7 addresses which concept?
• How is the term threat defined?
• An Emergency Appointment with security clearance may be granted by whom and under what circumstance(s)?
• Guideline B addresses which concern?
• What is the relationship between vulnerabilities and threats?
• SEAD 3 governs which aspect of security adjudication?
• Which of the following is a type of security briefing?
• What can be expected when confidential information is released?
• What did the Spoils System entail?
• Which guideline addresses Foreign Preference?
• Which of the following options correctly lists the components of the Low Tier?
• Is an adjudicator allowed to release a PSI directly to the Subject?
• Which SEAD number governs the collection, use, and retention of social media?
• Guideline E addresses which area?
• Which tiered investigation does not require re-investigation?
• What is the term for a bankruptcy being rejected or the debtor has withdrawn?
• True or False: No investigation can be conducted prior to an individual's 18th birthday.
• Which SEAD directive addresses ongoing status monitoring during a clearance process?
• Which case addresses following its own regulations, even if more restrictive than the law requires?
• ANACI stands for?
• Which of the following is an exception for granting reciprocity eligibility?
• Under Continuous Evaluation, which option correctly reflects the scope of responsibilities?
• Which E.O amended E.O. 13467 and E.O. 13488?
• What are the four adjudicative issues?
• Which of the following abbreviations corresponds to TransUnion in DCSA terminology?
• Which statement best describes Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI)?
• Who develops policy, guidance, and oversight for the DoD PSP?
• REO stands for?
• Which case is significant because it caused the establishment of due process procedures in the DOD PSP?
• What is a vulnerability?
• The FPV guides the transformative efforts to reform the U.S. government personnel security vetting process.
• Define RSI.
• Which chapter of bankruptcy is used by people with regular income who want to pay debts?
• Public Law 110-181, Section 3002 is more commonly known as what?
• In the context of DCSA, what does T/U stand for?
• What is the primary purpose of the USD(I&S) in relation to the DoD PSP?
• Which policy is associated with the DOD Personnel Security Program?
• Which statement about mitigating conditions is accurate?
• Which statement best describes E.O. 13764?
• TW 2.0 stands for what?
• What does SecEA stand for?
• What SMO should always be used for Air Force correspondence, if available?
• According to DSM-5, what is alcohol abuse now called?
• Which Executive Order required an aligned system for all vetting domains?
• Which guideline addresses Financial Considerations?
• What does DSS stand for?
• DISS stands for?
• Which guideline addresses Alcohol Consumption?
• Limited Access Authorization is a clearance type for which group?
• Which case affirmed that the denial of national security eligibility is based on a judgment call and subject to human error?
• Which option is NOT a background investigation type?
• Which of the following is a component of the adjudicative guidelines structure?
• Which E.O. was issued on January 17, 2017?
• What is the Privacy Act of 1974?
• What does IRTPA stand for?
• Which case is associated with the denial of national security eligibility based on loyalty concerns?
• What act ordered the immediate removal of any person advocating the overthrow the United States?
• What does DOHA stand for?
• The Personnel Security Program (PSP) aims to ensure which attributes for individuals with access to classified information?
• February 20, 1960 is the date associated with which E.O.?
• LAA cases require a Tier 5 Investigation for adjudication.
• SEAD 6 deals with what?
• Guideline J covers which type of conduct?
• What does DCII stand for?
• Which is not a prohibited area of questioning?
• What is ICPG 704.6?
• SEAD 5 covers which topic?
• Which statement about Interpol searches is accurate?
• Which of the following is a prohibited investigation technique?
• A case concerns alcohol use and its impact on duties; which guideline applies?
• Simplifying workforce mobility is an improvement implemented under TW 2.0. This statement is:
• One-time access authorization is granted to _________?
• Which is NOT listed as a component of the High Tier?
• Which form is the Questionnaire for National Security Positions?
• What did the Civil Service Act of 1883 establish?
• Which of the following is a correct expansion of the acronym SSBI?
• Which guideline addresses Criminal Conduct?
• Which guideline addresses Handling Protected Information?
• The adjudicative guidelines structure includes which of the following as NOT a component?
• Which are the three domains of Personnel Vetting?
• Which act gave the public the right to access agency records concerning US Government activities?
• How many days does an agency have to make a reciprocity determination?
• Which type of access is associated with the Low Tier?
• Guideline A addresses which area?
• A case involves a candidate's misuse of prescription stimulants; which guideline applies?
• Which tier is described as handling High Risk Public Trust Positions?
• April 24, 2019 is associated with which E.O.?
• What does FPV stand for?
• Name the four position sensitivity levels.
• What does the investigating agency use to verify U.S. naturalization for Subjects born in a foreign country?
• Which guidelines cover Allegiance as an adjudicative issue?
• What is the primary aim of the Hatch Act?
• Tier 1 is described as 'former NACI'. Which of the following is the correct association?
• Which policy establishes continuous evaluation requirements for individuals who require continued eligibility?
• Which E.O establishes that all persons employed by the departments and agencies of the government shall be reliable, trustworthy, of good conduct and character, and of complete and unswerving loyalty to the United States?
• In security adjudication, what is the main role of an adjudicator?
• Which case established that the investigative process is not equivalent to a trial and there is no self-incrimination protection?
• NBIB stands for?
• Which action is governed by the Privacy Act of 1974?
• The beginning of one-time access authorization is normally valid for how many days?
• A case concerns the management of sensitive case information; which guideline applies?
• Which policy documents establish and maintain the DOD personnel security policies and procedures?
• Which of the following is an example of a Special Access Program (SAP)?
• Define nolo contendere.
• Which organization handles the Defense Office of Hearing and Appeals proceedings?
• Which guideline is associated with Criminal Activity?
• Which SEAD directive deals with Whistleblower Protection?
• Which tiered investigation supports High Risk Public Trust Positions?
• Which term refers to a formal explanation provided to an individual about proposed adverse actions?
• What does NACI stand for?
• What does IRTPA stand for?
• In a DOD national security position designated Special Sensitive, which agency serves as the ISP?
• Which statement best describes the grounds for denial or revocation of a clearance under the Bond Amendment?
• Fitness adjudication is for industry personnel.
• Final adjudication of national security determinations is conducted where?
• Define disqualifying conditions.
• What can be expected when top secret information is released?
• Which of the following is not a common bias?
• Which form is used for Public Trust Positions?
• Which established guideline for reciprocity requires reciprocity between government agencies?
• Which Executive Order established a uniform federal Personnel Security Program for employees considered for initial or continued access to classified information?
• SEAD 8 relates to which concept?
• What are the four major elements of the PSP?
• Which credit bureaus does DCSA use?
• Continuous Evaluation requires persons who are authorized access to classified information, or perform sensitive duties, to continually meet certain standards of loyalty, trustworthiness, and reliability.
• What is the purpose of ICPG 704.3?
• SOR stands for which of the following in security adjudication?
• Which statement about the Hatch Act is accurate?
• Which statement describes the purpose of the SAP?
• Which of these is not one of the nine adjudicative factors?
• Dismissed bankruptcy term.
• Which pairing correctly matches position type with its form?
• True or False: An adjudicator must review ROIs for evidence of investigator bias.
• Define Continuous Evaluation.
• What are the two types of threats?
• Which statement best describes the PSP's focus on risk?
• Which definition best describes Due Process in adjudicative procedures?
• An individual with access to Secret information is required to report being contacted by the media when classified information was sought.
• True or False: Unauthorized disclosure from a Non-Sensitive Position will have no material adverse effect on national security.
• Security briefings are a part of what program?
• What is the date associated with E.O. 13467?
• NOT a type of security briefing?
• After an unfavorable determination, how many days does the adjudication facility have to update the system of record to reflect current eligibility?
• A Subject has two separate DISS Incident Reports. When drafting correspondence in the CLW, you will select Multiple Sources.
• SSBI stands for?
• Compulsive gambling may be a symptom of a mental health concern.
• In which source document can a list of authorized requesters for PSIs be found?
• Which date is associated with E.O. 12968?
• True or False: Tier 1, Tier 2, and Tier 4 have clearance eligibility.
• Can a Subject use multiple short duration accesses within a 12-month period, if necessary?
• In adjudicating drug test results, when would no additional information be required?
• Which tier includes Top Secret and SCI?
• Which executive order created new standards for the process of identifying and protecting classified information?
• Permanent residents may be granted SCI access in very special circumstances.
• The Adjudicative Guideline for determining eligibility for access to SCI and other controlled access is which document?
• Which case restricted civilians to sensitive positions?